Polygamy vs the Book of Mormon

I have been doing a lot of studying and thinking about the issue of polygamy and this is what I have come up with. I have settled the issue in my mind and believe what the Book of Mormon teaches on the issue. So this is what I have concluded:

Jacob 1:15 And now it came to pass that the people of Nephi, under the reign of the second king, began to grow hard in their hearts, and indulge themselves somewhat in wicked practices, such as like unto David of old desiring many wives and concubines, and also Solomon, his son.

What is Jacob telling us is a wicked practice here? And who is being portrayed as an example of someone involved in doing that wicked practice?

17 Wherefore I, Jacob, gave unto them these words as I taught them in the temple, having first obtained mine errand from the Lord.

Wow! Jacob teaches them after being told to do so by the Lord, polygamy is an abomination! And where is he teaching them this? From within the walls of the temple. How ironic is that? You think this is just a coincidence?

He continues here in:
Jacob 2: 23 But the word of God burdens me because of your grosser crimes. For behold, thus saith the Lord: This people begin to wax in iniquity; they understand not the scriptures, for they seek to excuse themselves in committing whoredoms, because of the things which were written concerning David, and Solomon his son.

What is a grosser crime? A really bad one right? Like committing whoredoms and then attempting to justify them because of what David and Solomon did. And we learn here they did that because they DIDN’T understand the scriptures. So you are being told here if you think polygamy is encouraged or commanded by God you DON’T understand the scriptures. Here are some relevant scriptures from the Bible:

David and Solomon did other things which displeased the Lord also, besides having many wives and concubines and David wasn’t allowed to build a temple because he had “shed much blood” in wars.(1 Chronicles 22:8)

JST 1 Kings 11:
4.For it came to pass, when Solomon was old, his wives turned away his heart after other gods; and his heart was not perfect with the Lord his God, and it became as the heart of David his father.
5.For Solomon went after Ashtoreth the goddess of the Zidonians, and after Milcom the abomination of the Ammonites.
6.And Solomon did evil in the sight of the Lord, as David his father, and went not fully after the Lord.

and in
JST 1 Kings 3:14 And if thou wilt walk in my ways to keep my statutes, and my commandments, then I will lengthen thy days, and thou shalt not walk in unrighteousness, as did thy father David.

Genesis 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Ephesians 5:31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

And now back to the actual words of God given through Jacob:

Jacob 2:24 Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.

What is being labeled abominable here by the Lord? And what was the definition of that word as used in the time Joseph Smith used it? 1828 Websters says: ABOM’INABLE, a. [See Abominate. ] 1. Very hateful; detestable; lothesome. 2. This word is applicable to whatever is odious to the mind or offensive to the senses.

Pretty clear condemnation, I would say.

25 Wherefore, thus saith the Lord, I have led this people forth out of the land of Jerusalem, by the power of mine arm, that I might raise up unto me a righteous branch from the fruit of the loins of Joseph.

Why did God say He led Lehi and the people with him out of the land of Jerusalem to the promised land? So he could raise up a righteous branch(who are commanded not to practice polygamy) from the lineage of Joseph(who also did not come from a polygamous line). He did this without instituting the false doctrine that polygamy or plural marriage(as if there is any real difference) was required and in fact is stating just the opposite. He is telling us here in no uncertain terms, a righteous branch of His people, is one which DOES NOT practice polygamy!!

26 Wherefore, I the Lord God will not suffer that this people shall do like unto them of old.

God is stating he will not allow this practice to continue within His people. These are his people and in order to remain “His people”, they will live according to a higher standard. Not only is he stating many wives and concubines is an abomination, in the next verse He even says having two wives is in violation of His commandment.

27 Wherefore, my brethren, hear me, and hearken to the word of the Lord: For there shall not any man among you have save it be one wife; and concubines he shall have none;

No man(not the prophet, not the king, apostles, priests or leaders), shall have more than one wife or any concubines. There is no waffling in this statement or any exception granted to “any man.”

28 For I, the Lord God, delight in the chastity of women. And whoredoms are an abomination before me; thus saith the Lord of Hosts.

It is clear here that God is equating polygamy with whoredoms. And He is saying it makes women who are involved in it unchaste. What does the 1828 Websters say a whoredom is? WHOREDOM, n. Horedom. 1. Lewdness; fornication; practice of unlawful commerce with the other sex. It is applied to either sex, and to any kind of illicit commerce.
So having more than one wife is unlawful and therefore when any other marriage is entered into and results in sexual intercourse, adultery is committed.
That is the exact same policy followed by the restored church with its Article on Marriage, instituted in the 1835 D&C(and later removed in 1876 by the polygamist Brigham Young) and was established as the “Law” of His church in 1831, by direct revelation as laid out in D&C in section 42:22, “Thou shalt love thy wife with all thy heart, and shalt cleave unto her and none else” and again stated in D&C 49:16  “Wherefore, it is lawful that he should have one wife, and they twain shall be one flesh, and all this that the earth might answer the end of its creation; ”
This is the standard which will continue until the “earth might answer the end of its creation” which clearly hasn’t happened yet, has it?

29 Wherefore, this people shall keep my commandments, saith the Lord of Hosts, or cursed be the land for their sakes.

Having only one wife is a commandment and those who break it will be cursed not blessed. One can go through the history of the restored church and also read about what happened to the Nephites and the Jaredites to see those breaking this commandment have been cursed, far more than blessed.

30 For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.

Now this is the verse that gives people a lot of trouble and one which has been totally misinterpreted by pro-polygamists, desperate to find something in the BOM they can use to justify their whoredoms. Now think about this, we just read eight verses very clearly condemning the “abomination” and “whoredom” polygamy is in the eyes of God and how He will curse the land of the people who practice it and now we are supposed to think He says it is OK if He wants it to be? That’s what we should think this means? Seriously? Not!
If that is what you see here you are being blinded by the doctrines of men and you don’t understand the scriptures. Instead, we need to look at the one misinterpreted word used here by advocates of polygamy, which causes this verse to be confusing when it is taken out of the context it is clearly in. They claim this one word overrides all the verses before and all the verses after and and thus we find the following foolish claim made on an LDS apologist site, “The Book of Mormon makes it clear that the Lord may, under some circumstances, command the practice of plural marriage.” Huh? Makes it clear? Where? Certainly not in verse 30! If it is clear why is there any controversy over this issue which has been raging for generations?

This is ridiculous, completely false and is a blatant corruption of the word of God.
The word otherwise as used in 1828 had a different definition which was OTH’ERWISE, adv. [other and wise, manner. ] 1. In a different manner.  Thy father was a worthy prince, and merited, alas! a better fate; but heaven thought otherwise.
When that usage is applied here this verse takes on a much clearer meaning which fits logically and completely with the context it is in. It is crucial to use the correct meaning of the word otherwise here in this verse as it was understood and used in the time this was translated. Let’s try : 30 For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; in a different manner they shall hearken unto these things.

Just what manner of behavior is Jacob in the middle of expounding on and condemning here? The abominable manner of David and Solomon, right? And the abominable manner of the Nephites in misinterpreting the scriptures to justify committing “whoredoms” by having more than one wife. Isn’t this a type and shadow of what Latter Day Saints would later do? God is really reiterating here what he just stated in verse 25; When He chooses to raise up a righteous seed(branch) unto Him, He will give those people commandments to follow. And they will keep those commandments in a different manner than was done by “them of old”. Pretty straightforward. And we are being told here, one of the main and most important commandments given to them in order to be a righteous branch of His People, is they are to only have one wife. And this fact will even be made clearer by Him when we get to Jacob 3:6. So God is really stating here: IN A DIFFERENT MANNER than David and Solomon did of old, His people WILL hearken unto these things. What things(things condemned in verse 24)? His commandment to have only one wife.

This is also interesting:

Here is this verse straight from the original printing of the Book of Mormon in the 1830 edition which continued unchanged in the 1837, 1840 and 1841 editions all published while Joseph Smith was alive until it was changed in the 1849 edition published by the polygamist, Orson Pratt, probably under the direction of Brigham Young  : “For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people: otherwise, they shall hearken unto these things.”

Notice the different punctuation? See how it originally had a colon instead of a semicolon and a comma after the word otherwise? Why was this changed? By whose authority?  For what purpose? Maybe a little grammar lesson is in order here-  A colon is used to connect two sentences when the second sentence summarizes, sharpens, or explains the first. Both sentences should be complete, and their content should be very closely related.  NOT contradictory! A colon means “that is to say” or “here’s what I mean.” Colons and semicolons should never be used interchangeably. A colon instead of a semicolon may be used between independent clauses when the second sentence explains, illustrates, paraphrases, or expands on the first sentence.

This original punctuation more clearly shows God does not condone the way of David and Solomon, and commands His people to act in a different manner.  Again, what things are Jacob condemning here? The abominations and whoredoms of David and Solomon, by having many wives and concubines. He is telling all His people, if they are going to continue to be His people, they will have to act in another manner than David and Solomon did.
It is ridiculous to think God condemns something and then while in the middle of condemning it says “But if I feel like it I still might tell you to do this when I want you to.” God isn’t wishy-washy. He isn’t a flake. He is the “same God yesterday, today, and forever”(D&C 20:12).
Mormon also taught this great truth clearly, “For do we not read that God is the same yesterday, today, and forever, and in him there is no variableness neither shadow of changing?”(Mormon 9:9)
Again, this verse is NOT an exception, it is not a loophole, it is a reiteration of verse 25: Wherefore, thus saith the Lord, I have led this people forth out of the land of Jerusalem, by the power of mine arm, that I might raise up unto me a righteous branch from the fruit of the loins of Joseph.

And there is another perfectly logical interpretation of this verse which also condemns the practice of polygamy. Isn’t it far more likely that God is stating here that if he doesn’t command his people(His seed) NOT to practice polygamy they will use any excuse(the things written about David and Solomon) to engage in it?
God knows If he doesn’t tell them(US) NOT to, they will hearken(listen) to those who tell them it is o.k. and use any excuse, even corrupting the scriptures to justify it. Doesn’t that make a lot more sense here? It does to me. But then again I am not a polygamist searching for any excuse, no matter how ridiculous in order to justify my sin. I am not straining at a gnat so I can swallow a big, smelly, slobbering camel.

31 For behold, I, the Lord, have seen the sorrow, and heard the mourning of the daughters of my people in the land of Jerusalem, yea, and in all the lands of my people, because of the wickedness and abominations of their husbands.

Why were His daughters sorrowful and mourning in Jerusalem and in “all the lands of His people”? What caused them to suffer and mourn? The wickedness and abominations of their HUSBANDS! And what were the husbands doing that was wicked and abominable? Taking more wives and concubines due to their lust and then trying to justify it by INCORRECTLY interpreting the scriptures. Don’t sinners frequently try to justify their sins? Don’t they use any means to try and do so?
What does Alma say about this in chapter 41:10 “Do not suppose, because it has been spoken concerning restoration, that ye shall be restored from sin to happiness. Behold, I say unto you, wickedness never was happiness.”
So how can this wickedness ever lead to happiness? Is God a liar?

32 And I will not suffer, saith the Lord of Hosts, that the cries of the fair daughters of this people, which I have led out of the land of Jerusalem, shall come up unto me against the men of my people, saith the Lord of Hosts.

He loves all His children equally and the cries of His daughters do not go unheeded. God is stating He will not allow this practice to happen without consequences and in the next verse tells us what those consequences will be. Notice also how the men are the ones singled out here? The men are the cause of this wickedness. Women never come up with the idea of polygamy, do they?

33 For they shall not lead away captive the daughters of my people because of their tenderness, save I shall visit them with a sore curse, even unto destruction; for they shall not commit whoredoms, like unto them of old, saith the Lord of Hosts.

That is a very interesting phrase, “lead away captive,” isn’t it? The men play on the “tenderness” of the women to lead them into the captivity of sin to satisfy their own lusts and desire for power and control. The men misinterpret the scriptures and then use them to ‘sell’ the sin they want to engage in(with) to the women. Here’s a question: what practice nearly caused the complete destruction of the restored church, until they finally abandoned it? What practice split the church more than once? What practice is still a big problem for it? What practice created a culture of lying and deceit?

Nephi warned of this, “Wo unto them that call evil good, and good evil, that put darkness for light, and light for darkness, that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!”
So again, we get a clear condemnation of what David and Solomon did here and the harm it does to women. And one should naively and foolishly believe verse 30 granted an exception? A loophole? Come on, really?

“O that cunning plan of the evil one! O the vainness, and the frailties, and the foolishness of men! When they are learned they think they are wise, and they hearken not unto the counsel of God, for they set it aside, supposing they know of themselves, wherefore, their wisdom is foolishness and it profiteth them not. And they shall perish.”
Don’t you think we should heed the counsel offered in Acts 5:29?  “¶Then Peter and the other apostles answered and said, We ought to obey God rather than men.”

34 And now behold, my brethren, ye know that these commandments were given to our father, Lehi; wherefore, ye have known them before; and ye have come unto great condemnation; for ye have done these things which ye ought not to have done.

Crystal clear statement the commandment was given to Lehi and his people to live the law of one wife married to one husband. There is no commandment given to men, by GOD, in the Bible contradicting this law, either. Yes, Abraham and Jacob had more than one wife but God NEVER commanded them to do that. There was no law given commanding them to do so. Their first wives, as in the case of Sarai(not named Sarah until over 13 years after the fact- D&C 132), and chosen wife, Rachel, both lost faith that they would ever have children as promised, due to their age, and came up with the plan of their respective husbands taking another wife or concubine, in the hope of then having children. That wasn’t God’s plan and not what He commanded them to do. Just a result of their lack of faith. Besides, Jacob was tricked into marrying Leah whom he thought was Rachel. And good luck finding in the Bible where God commanded polyandry which was practiced by some of the women in the restored church. It isn’t there. Or secretly marrying other men’s wives.

35 Behold, ye have done greater iniquities than the Lamanites, our brethren. Ye have broken the hearts of your tender wives, and lost the confidence of your children, because of your bad examples before them; and the sobbings of their hearts ascend up to God against you. And because of the strictness(no loopholes) of the word of God, which cometh down against you, many hearts died, pierced with deep wounds.

Guilty of greater iniquities than the Lamanites? So how important is the commandment to only have one wife? If breaking that commandment breaks the tender hearts of the wives how could breaking that law ever become an act of righteousness? Jacob states here that this is a strict commandment which means no exceptions or loopholes. Websters 1828 says strictness is: exactness in the observance of rules, laws, rites and the like; rigorous accuracy; nice regularity or precision. Still think verse 30 means what the polygamists say it does? You going to put your trust in them?

Jacob 3: 5 Behold, the Lamanites your brethren, whom ye hate because of their filthiness and the cursing which hath come upon their skins, are more righteous than you; for they have not forgotten the commandment of the Lord, which was given unto our father(Lehi)—that they should have save it were ONE wife, and concubines they should have none, and there should not be whoredoms committed among them.

This is completely unequivocal in its condemnation of having more than one wife irregardless of what that process is called, be it polygamy, polyandry, plural marriage or the spiritual wife system. It is a commandment given to all of God’s people. Calling something by another name doesn’t change what it really is. You can call a rattlesnake a big earthworm but it is still a rattlesnake. Don’t be fooled into thinking ‘plural marriage’ is some new and special higher law just because the polygamists came up with a fancy new name for their sin. It isn’t. Remember, “wickedness never was happiness”.

6 And now, this commandment they observe to keep; wherefore, because of this observance, in keeping this commandment, the Lord God will not destroy them, but will be merciful unto them; and one day they shall become a blessed people.

Amazingly, we learn here, just the fact the Lamanites observed this commandment was enough to offset the punishment for all their other unrighteous acts, allowing them to be saved from total destruction, which the Nephites suffered. And then they are promised they will become a “blessed people” for keeping this commandment. This is Huge! Could it be any clearer how the Lord feels about the sanctity of marriage being between only ONE man and ONE woman? How many times and in how many ways must he say it?
And we should foolishly throw all this out the window because of the misunderstanding of the meaning of the word, ‘otherwise’ or some misplaced punctuation? You think God will give you a pass for that?
“Sorry God, I ignored everything else you revealed about this and common sense and logic because I thought you created a loophole for me with a single word.” Good luck with that. I’m betting that isn’t going to work out to well for you.

7 Behold, their husbands love their wives, and their wives love their husbands; and their husbands and their wives love their children; and their unbelief and their hatred towards you is because of the iniquity of their fathers; wherefore, how much better are you than they, in the sight of your great Creator?

What did Paul teach us in Galations 1? “But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed” Did Paul ever teach the other gospel of plural marriage? How did Joseph Smith say he received the directive to practice polygamy? From an angel threatening him with a drawn sword, right?
Is it possible Joseph Smith was fooled by this angel and led the church(at least the elite of the church) astray? Do you think this prophecy in Malachi 2:14 (about JS?) is referring to this very thing happening?
“Yet ye say, Wherefore? Because the Lord hath been witness between thee and the wife of thy youth, against whom thou hast dealt treacherously: yet is she thy companion, and the wife of thy covenant.”
Did Joseph really tell William Marks he had been deceived about the doctrine of polygamy as Marks stated? http://tinyurl.com/p4ozxr8

Did the other apostles or Jesus Christ preach the gospel of plural marriage? Did Enoch? Noah? Adam? Moses? Nephi? Did Abraham? Isaac, who was Abraham’s son didn’t practice it (contradicting another lie found in D&C 132 in verses 1 and 37). Isaac also didn’t come from it and Isaac and Rebekah never lost their faith, and patiently waited over 20 years, until the promise they would have a child was finally fulfilled. The Nephites and Lamanites were living under Mosaic law at this time and commanded not to practice polygamy so how could this have been a commandment sanctioned by Mosaic law? And even if it was sanctioned under Mosaic law what did Christ say when He appeared to the people in the BOM?                          3 Nephi 12:46 “Therefore those things which were of old time, which were under the law, in me are all fulfilled.

What is the purpose of the Book of Mormon? The Lord Himself has stated that the Book of Mormon contains the “fulness of the gospel of Jesus Christ” (D&C 20:9). The Prophet Joseph Smith’s testified that “the Book of Mormon was the most correct of any book on earth, and the keystone of our religion.” The angel Moroni said, “there was a book deposited, written upon gold plates, giving an account of the former inhabitants of this continent, and the source from whence they sprang.” He also said that the fulness of the everlasting Gospel was contained in it, as delivered by the Savior to the ancient inhabitants;
If it is the most correct book of any book on earth, contains the fulness of the gospel and it condemns unequivocally the practice of having more than one wife should that condemnation be ignored or set aside? If it clearly states, which it does, that one who uses the scriptures to justify this practice does so in error, should that warning also be taken lightly and ignored?

Doesn’t it make sense to apply this directive here?  “But ye are commanded in all things to ask of God, who giveth liberally; and that which the Spirit testifies unto you even so I would that ye should do in all holiness of heart, walking uprightly before me, considering the end of your salvation, doing all things with prayer and thanksgiving, that ye may not be seduced by evil spirits, or doctrines of devils, or the commandments of men; for some are of men, and others of devils.”  (D&C 46:7)

Why has the church been under condemnation for so long for taking the Book of Mormon lightly, since at least September 22, 1832 as stated in D&C 84?

Verse 54 “And your minds in times past have been darkened because of unbelief, and because you have treated lightly the things you have received—

55 Which vanity and unbelief have brought the whole church under condemnation.

56 And this condemnation resteth upon the children of Zion, even all.

57 And they shall remain under this condemnation until they repent and remember the new covenant, even the Book of Mormon and the former commandments(D&C 19:25) which I have given them, not only to say, but to do according to that which I have written—              Whoa!!

Does the Book of Mormon have anything else to say about how God feels about polygamy? Any other passages which might further clarify or reinforce how God feels about this practice?

Lets look in Mosiah and read about what God said about the practices of wicked king Noah:
Mosiah 11- Verse 2
For behold, he did not keep the commandments of God, but he did walk after the desires of his own heart. And he had many wives and concubines. And he did cause his people to commit sin, and do that which was abominable in the sight of the Lord. Yea, and they did commit whoredoms and all manner of wickedness.

Interesting that we are told here wanting to have more than one wife was the “desire of his own heart”. Men are naturally attracted to women and lust leads them to covet more than one, yet in doing so we read one isn’t keeping the commandments of God. God knew this was an issue with the early saints and saw fit to warn them in 1829 in D&C 19:25 “And again, I command thee that thou shalt not covet thy neighbor’s wife; nor seek thy neighbor’s life.” He knew this was going to be a ‘stumbling block’ for them and yet this commandment and warning was ignored and many coveted and then married their neighbors wives.

3 And he laid a tax of one fifth part of all they possessed, a fifth part of their gold and of their silver, and a fifth part of their ziff, and of their copper, and of their brass and their iron; and a fifth part of their fatlings; and also a fifth part of all their grain.(taxation which is theft is also condemned here)

4 And all this did he take to support himself, and his wives and his concubines; and also his priests, and their wives and their concubines; thus he had changed the affairs of the kingdom.

He robbed people to pay for his whoredoms and the whoredoms of his priests. Sounds like our rulers nowadays.

5 For he put down all the priests that had been consecrated by his father, and consecrated new ones in their stead, such as were lifted up in the pride of their hearts.

Obviously the good priests wanted nothing to do with his wickedness and abominations so he had to get new ones who liked that sort of thing.

6 Yea, and thus they were supported in their laziness, and in their idolatry, and in their whoredoms, by the taxes which king Noah had put upon his people; thus did the people labor exceedingly to support iniquity.

7 Yea, and they also became idolatrous, because they were deceived by the vain and flattering words of the king and priests; for they did speak flattering things unto them.

And the people followed their rulers into sinning just like them. The rulers lied to them and convinced them good was bad and bad was good. So here we find another clear condemnation regarding having more than one wife and of that practice comprising “whoredoms”.

And finally we go to Ether 10 for one more proof of God’s condemnation in the Book of Mormon, of this practice among the Jaredites, another group of people he initially chosen to be a righteous branch. Verses 5-7:

5 And it came to pass that Riplakish did not do that which was right in the sight of the Lord, for he did have many wives and concubines, and did lay that upon men’s shoulders which was grievous to be borne; yea, he did tax them with heavy taxes; and with the taxes he did build many spacious buildings. (another condemnation of the theft known as taxation)

6 And he did erect him an exceedingly beautiful throne; and he did build many prisons, and whoso would not be subject unto taxes he did cast into prison; and whoso was not able to pay taxes he did cast into prison; and he did cause that they should labor continually for their support; and whoso refused to labor he did cause to be put to death.

7 Wherefore he did obtain all his fine work, yea, even his fine gold he did cause to be refined in prison; and all manner of fine workmanship he did cause to be wrought in prison. And it came to pass that he did afflict the people with his whoredoms and abominations.

He had many wives and concubines thus engaging in whoredoms and abominations, contrary to the commandments of God.

It is interesting that both the Jaredites and the Nephites, who at various times engaged in the condemned practice of having multiple wives and or concubines, were completely destroyed. Yet the Lamanites, who also engaged in other wicked practices done by the Nephites and Jaredites, but not polygamy, weren’t completely destroyed. Huh! And the reason given for them being spared was recorded in Jacob 3:6 “And now, this commandment they observe to keep; wherefore, because of this observance, in keeping this commandment, the Lord God will not destroy them, but will be merciful unto them; and one day they shall become a blessed people.”

Pretty powerful message and warning to the rest of the world and the Latter Day Saints out of the most correct book on earth, from three distinct groups of people, isn’t it?
Three clear witnesses warning us away from this unholy practice. The Book of Mormon, which was written explicitly for us and contains the fullness of the gospel, is absolutely clear on its condemnation of polygamy and the accompanying sin of misinterpreting the scriptures to justify it.

So I can apply this wise counsel from Joseph Fielding Smith:

“ It makes no difference what is written or what anyone has said, if what has
been said is in conflict with what the Lord has revealed, we can set it aside.

My words, and the teachings of any other member of the Church, high or low, if
they do not square with the revelations, we need not accept them.

Let us have this matter clear. We have accepted the four standard works as the measuring yardsticks, or balances,
by which we measure every man’s doctrine.” (Joseph Fielding Smith Doctrines of Salvation, 3:203).

Polygamy and its counterpart, plural marriage is false doctrine. Of that I have no doubt. And just like the church has now rejected the racist doctrine of claiming blacks weren’t allowed to hold the priesthood, for all kinds of previously offered ridiculous reasons, the false doctrine of polygamy will also fall. God is not a polygamist. He isn’t married and He isn’t dependent on a female goddess letting Him use her womb in order for His will to be done. We are not going to be polygamists in the next life. All of that is abominable doctrine and an “other gospel” created by lecherous, old men trying to justify their whoredoms.